USMLE (United States Medical Licensing Examination) Practice Exam 10
Practice exam for USMLE (United States Medical Licensing Examination).
Question 1
MEDIUMA 29-year-old woman comes to the clinic for evaluation of infertility. She and her partner have had unprotected intercourse for 18 months. Her cycles are regular every 28 days. She uses a home ovulation predictor kit that consistently turns positive on day 14. Mid-luteal (day 21) serum progesterone is 2 ng/mL (reference: >10 ng/mL indicates ovulation). She has no galactorrhea. BMI is 22 kg/m2. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this discrepancy?
A positive ovulation predictor reflects an LH surge, but low mid-luteal progesterone suggests anovulation or luteinized unruptured follicle/poor luteal function; inadequate LH surge amplitude can prevent normal ovulation/corpus luteum progesterone production. The kit detects LH (not subunits) and is generally specific; sustained high estradiol would trigger (not suppress) the LH surge via positive feedback.
Question 1 of 100
Community
Loading ranked answers and discussion...